I'm confused on a section in the Critique of Pure Reason. Kant says "Hence time is merely a subjective condition of our (human) intuition (an intuition that is always sensible-- i.e. inasmuch as we are affected by objects); in itself i.e., apart from the subject, time is nothing. Nevertheless, time is necessarily objective in regard to all appearances and hence also in regard to all things that we can encounter in experience"(A35).
Could someone explain what he means by time being a subjective condition of human intuition but also objective in regard to things we encounter in experience?