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I have no background in philosophy. So I apologize if this question seems silly.

The reason "This statement is false" is sometimes considered to be a statement that can be evaluated as either true or false in logical discussions is because the statement itself makes a claim or assertion, which is a fundamental characteristic of a proposition.

However, upon further examination, the claim is self-referential and leads to a paradox, which is why it cannot be definitively evaluated as either true or false. This paradoxical nature is what is demonstrated step by step in my detailed chat with AI, which concludes that the statement is neither true nor false.

(1) How correct is the second paragraph?

NOTE During conversion, my different paragraphs (in each comment of MY post) has been changed to one paragraph (in each comment of MY post). So I apologize if that makes my comments a bit uneasy to perceive for the readers. Anyway TRY YOUR BEST in understanding each of my comments and each of its responses.

(2) Then tell how much correct is the following paragraph:

The sentence "This statement is false" is self-referential and has no clear meaning and during logical analysis sentences with no clear meaning may lead to a contradiction, which is why it cannot be definitively evaluated as either true or false. The fact that: "This statement is false" is meaningless and therefore may lead to a contradiction during logical analysis" is what is demonstrated step by step in my detailed chat with AI, which concludes that the statement is neither true nor false.

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    I can't read your chat. The link takes me to the sign-in page, and then to begin my own chat (or resume a previous one of mine). But when I presented an impossibility to ChatGPT last week, it realised it was a paradox. Mar 13, 2023 at 22:56
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    That sentence is called the Liar Paradox. There is a huge literature on it. See the SEP article for an introduction. plato.stanford.edu/entries/liar-paradox Some accounts consider it to be neither true nor false, some both, some that it fails to express a proposition at all, others that it requires a non-classical logic to understand.
    – Bumble
    Mar 14, 2023 at 0:17
  • See IEP, Liar paradox. Depending on interpretation, it can be characterized as false, neither true nor false, both true and false, or even meaningless, so that those adjectives do not apply.
    – Conifold
    Mar 14, 2023 at 0:20
  • @WeatherVane: Sorry for late response.... I slept after posting during night time in my country...... It is very important for everyone to read the chat to perceive what I am saying and then analyze whether I am correct.... Is it OK if I convert the entire chat as PDF and then upload it in another site and send the link to the readers here?
    – Joe
    Mar 14, 2023 at 5:10
  • It is very important for everyone to read the chat to perceive what I am saying and then analyze whether I am correct.... Is it OK if I convert the entire chat as PDF and then upload it in another site and send the link to the readers here?
    – Joe
    Mar 14, 2023 at 5:11

1 Answer 1

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parsing out the truth/falsehood content of a statement becomes a thorny problem when statements are allowed to refer to themselves, because self-reference permits self-contradiction. This is the essential conundrum posed by the statement you cite.

This is called the Epimenides Paradox and much has been written about it. When translated into the language of formal logic it furnishes the basis of Goedel's Incompleteness Theorem, about which even more has been written.

A useful book about this, written for nonspecialists, is Hofstader's Goedel, Escher, Bach: The Eternal Golden Braid which I recommend you have a look at.

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  • Epimenides paradox is something I want to discuss in another stackexchange post... please look at my edited question and chat with AI...
    – lorilori
    Mar 15, 2023 at 3:24

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