Note: The OP's question is basically Kant's third antinomy which contradiction led to his formulation of transcendental apperception to resolve.
One approach to refutation of the contradiction follows here, as summarised in J. Backman's The Absent Foundation, page 12
As Heidegger emphasizes in his 1949 foreword to “On the Essence of
Ground,” while the ontological difference and the nothing are not
mutually “equivalent” (einerlei), they nevertheless belong together as
the self-same issue (das Selbe) for thinking—as Being.
Being aka nothing – in contradistinction to beings which exist – is the ground, or ab-grund, literally 'ground-less', translating as 'void', in which beings come to presence. The beings themselves exist on the basis of reason and understanding according to Kant's unity of transcendental apperception. Being, the ground, does not depend on reason; (hence 'nothing is without reason').
pages 15 - 16
Here he also notes that in 1929 he did not listen attentively enough
to the wording of Leibniz’s principle.48 To say that nothing is
without reason or ground is assuredly a metaphysical statement, but if
instead we emphasize the word nothing (nihil), we get: nothing is
without ground. Being as the no-thing-ness is the ground, more
precisely, the absent ground, which itself has no ground.
Reinterpreting the OP's problem:
Re. 7. [cause A for the existence of causality] does not exist.
Being (as nothing), does not exist.
3. There is a cause for the existence of causality.
Being is the ground of beings and hence causality.
8.Statement 7 contradicts statement 3.
No contradiction.