Let's take the open question argument to basically be that if we tried to provide a reductive definition of (e.g.) goodness in non-non-naturalistic terms (so naturalistic terms), we can always nevertheless ask/doubt whether said (non-non-)naturalistic definition of goodness was such that upon its criteria being satisfied we could say both that those criteria were satisfied and that that's what goodness amounts to (in a sort of biconditional relation).

*I have heard **(ie made it up)** it said that G.E. Moore, who came up with this argument, eventually rejected the open question argument. I can't find a citation for such anywhere. So where (in what text) and on what basis did Moore reject the argument, if he even did?*


Note: I don't think the open question argument, as charitably understood as possible, makes much room for non-naturalism since we can always press on how we got extensionality without knowing what criteria constitute the intensionality of a moral predicate.

**edited for clarity**