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Aristotle was a Greek philosopher, famous for his prolific writings on a vast array of subjects, including logic, ethics, aesthetics, metaphysics, politics, and even the natural sciences. He is widely considered a "founding figure" in Western philosophy.

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Why did Aristotle place the earth at the centre of an infinite universe? He didn't. He placed the earth at the center of a finite universe. For Aristotle, the universe is decidedly not infinite; he argued that there were potential infinities, but not actual infinities. …
answered Sep 19 '12 by Michael Dorfman
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Aesop is mentioned in the Rhetoric (2:20), Meterology (2:3), and On the Parts of Animals (3:2). This is not a comprehensive list; there might be other references my casual search may have missed.
answered Dec 18 '11 by Michael Dorfman
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It is not Aristotle who makes that argument but Plato, in the Phaedrus. If you are not interested in reading the entire dialogue, you can read a summary of the argument on the relevant Wikipedia page. …
answered Dec 9 '12 by Michael Dorfman
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This is best understood in contrast to Plato's theories. For Aristotle, the passage is saying, only bare particulars exist, and not universals. This means, for example, that there are individual …
answered Jul 29 '12 by Michael Dorfman
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would we be right to approach their views, particularly their ethics, with heightened suspicion and scrutiny on the basis of such evidence? Absolutely. We should not dismiss them out of hand, bu …
answered Dec 17 '11 by Michael Dorfman
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Teleology is, generally speaking, within the domain of theology; to speak of a final cause implies a subject who is intentionally causing the action in question, which in the global sense would apply …
answered Dec 15 '11 by Michael Dorfman
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That's a great question. It seems to me that a telos is an essence that would need to precede existence: to have a telos is to exist for some purpose, and that purpose is necessary for, and necessari …
answered Dec 15 '11 by Michael Dorfman
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true and false P is neither true nor false For Aristotle (and classical logic), the bottom two options are forbidden-- "Both P and Not P" because of the Law of Non-Contradiction (there exists no P …
answered Dec 14 '11 by Michael Dorfman
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Is there something that renders the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy article on the subject insufficient for your purposes? I don't think you can reasonably expect a summary to be more concise tha …
answered Jul 18 '12 by Michael Dorfman
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Thirty Tyrants-- in other words, we can safely assume that Socrates's view of Athenian democracy was not terribly positive. Similarly, Aristotle was (up until a year or two before his death, at least … ) tutor to Alexander, and was thus associated with Macedon, which had subjugated Athens. So, he, too, was no friend to Athenian democracy. In short: I'd argue that (in broad strokes, at least), Socrates, Plato and Aristotle shared a fundamental partiality toward oligarchy. …
answered Oct 31 '11 by Michael Dorfman
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, and the connections between Pyrrhonism and Madhyamaka Buddhism. However, there's no direct evidence that applies to Aristotle. He may have known of Buddhist teachings, or he may not have. …
answered Dec 14 '11 by Michael Dorfman
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If they did, it wouldn't have helped. As Robert Brumbaugh pointed out, Zeno constructed four different paradoxes: one that covers continuous time and discrete space, on that covers continuous space a …
answered Sep 22 '12 by Michael Dorfman
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I don't think Aristotle's concerns were the same as, say, Kant in this regard; he does not (in my reading) appear to be referring to the "sensible/intelligible" distinction. Trivially, one could argu …
answered Nov 14 '11 by Michael Dorfman
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and Aristotle (and Socrates, of course, left no writings), so you're completely out of luck in that regard. I'd suggest you begin with a topic that interests you, and work from there. And, if you … have not read them before, I'd definitely suggest using a fair bit of secondary literature to help elucidate; there are many things at play in the works of Plato and Aristotle that may not be obvious on …
answered Oct 22 '11 by Michael Dorfman
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Well, to begin with, that's a terrible misquotation of Aristotle. What he actually wrote was the following: But at present we are studying the best constitution, and this is the constitution … , let us examine this a little more closely. By "a mechanic or mercantile life", Aristotle is talking about artisans and tradesmen; in fact, this is a common translation of the passage. And …
answered Dec 13 '11 by Michael Dorfman

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