26 votes
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Is there any worth—other than historical—to reading Aristotle's works on logic?

Logic means something different now than what it once did. In classical philosophy one primary branch of philosophy investigated the cosmos, one investigated human life, and a third investigated the ...
guest1806's user avatar
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22 votes
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Why bother with anything else besides Aristotle's syllogistic logic?

Aristotle's syllogistic logic is too weak for serious work. It does not readily express multi-place predicates. You cannot express two-place relations like, "John loves Mary", or three-...
Bumble's user avatar
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21 votes
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Why did the mid-19th century and earlier thinkers fixate on one-place predicates?

Because there was a calculus for one-place predicates, Aristotle's syllogistic, roughly equivalent to monadic predicate calculus. Aristotle does discuss "relatives" in Categories, which ...
Conifold's user avatar
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18 votes

The problem of Motion

I recommend to start with the arrow paradox by the Greek philosopher Zeno, see https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/paradox-zeno/#ParMot Afterwards you could study how calculus formalizes the limit ...
Jo Wehler's user avatar
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15 votes
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Why were Kant's categories used in the mathematical category theory?

The paper General Theory of Natural Equivalences by Eilenberg and Mac Lane (1945), where the terminology is first introduced, mentions neither Aristotle, nor Kant, nor even Carnap, who was still alive....
Conifold's user avatar
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14 votes
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Does Aristotle ever explicitly refer to man as a "rational animal"?

Kind of. The obvious As animal sociale is the Latin, especially Scholastic translation of zoon politikon, just as animal rationale is the translation of ζῷον λόγον ἔχον, zōon logon ekhon, he ...
Philip Klöcking's user avatar
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14 votes

Is there any worth—other than historical—to reading Aristotle's works on logic?

No, Aristotle's logic has not been rendered obsolete or disproved; "modern works still reference/use his logic frequently" (courtesy: V2Blast). See, for example: Łukasiewicz, Jan. 1957. Aristotle's ...
Geremia's user avatar
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12 votes
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Do all epistemologies suffer from the "regress of justifications" problem?

Terminology changed somewhat, and much of what used to be called "logic" as late as early 20th century is now called epistemology, for more details see What are the differences between philosophies ...
Conifold's user avatar
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10 votes
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How do Thomists prove that: "Everything that exists must exist by something."?

Thomists affirm theism, but God would be a counterexample to your proposition as stated: God is something "that exists" in Himself; He does not "exist by something [else]". ...
Geremia's user avatar
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8 votes

Thomas of Aquino vs. William of Ockham

One view is that Ockham invented his Nominalism in order to justify his being against the papacy. The Thomist semiotician John Deely, in his Four Ages of Understanding pp. 394 ff., shows how the ...
Geremia's user avatar
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8 votes
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What does Aristotle mean by showing fear in times of boldness?

The context is human action and its "rationality": [ 1113b.1 ] The activities in which the virtues are exercised deal with means. Therefore virtue also depends on ourselves. And so also ...
Mauro ALLEGRANZA's user avatar
8 votes

Why did the mid-19th century and earlier thinkers fixate on one-place predicates?

An n-ary relation gives rise to parameterized unary predicates if one fixes n-1 arguments. Wilfrid Hodges argues that this is what logicians did before the nineteenth century. (There may be other ...
Pteromys's user avatar
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8 votes
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What does Aristotle mean by contemplation?

The Greek word for contemplation is 'theoria', and is the basis for the word 'theory' where it came to mean 'careful contemplation of a subject'. A theoros is a spectator at a theatre, observing the ...
CriglCragl's user avatar
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7 votes

What's the difference between Aristotle's logic and Frege's logic especially with regard to predicates?

There are several important differences between the logics of Aristotle and Frege. 1.Aristotle understood sentences to be fundamentally of the form Subject-Predicate. He classified sentences into ...
Bumble's user avatar
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7 votes

Seeking the Source of an Aristotle quotation

Aristotle, 'In the case of objects which involve no matter, what thinks and what is thought are identical' ('De Anima', III, 430a, 3-4). (J.A. Smith tr., Oxford.)
Geoffrey Thomas's user avatar
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7 votes

Reference Format to Aristotle Book

That's not quite right for the parsing. What you're seeing is BOOK Chapter and Bekker notation. Your example: Met. I.3 983b6–18 = Metaphysics Book I Chapter 3 Bekker page 983 column b lines 6-...
virmaior's user avatar
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7 votes

Aristotle's Categories with academic commentary

Aristotle, Aristotle's Categories and De Interpretatione, Published by Clarendon Press, Oxford, 1963. Translated with notes by J.L.Ackrill. Ackrill was a fine scholar and I still find this book ...
Geoffrey Thomas's user avatar
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7 votes

What other philosophers I read before taking a class on “being and time”

Given that you have about a month and a half to prepare, in which you estimate you can read two or three books, I would not recommend starting with Aristotle to understand Being and Time. Instead, I ...
virmaior's user avatar
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7 votes
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What does Aquinas mean when he refers to things being "identical numerically" or "specifically identical" with things?

The efficient cause is not numerically identical with the effect because the "things" involved into the "production process" are different individials : the father of John generates John but he is a ...
Mauro ALLEGRANZA's user avatar
7 votes

Why bother with anything else besides Aristotle's syllogistic logic?

From a modern point of view, Aristotle's Logic is a subset of predicate logic, called Monadic predicate logic: monadic predicate calculus (also called monadic first-order logic) is the fragment of ...
Mauro ALLEGRANZA's user avatar
7 votes

How could we have defined time, had matter in our universe not been atomic?

A few observations... A second is a unit of time, not time, so the definition of a second is not a definition of time any more than a kilogram is a definition of mass. The advantage of using atomic ...
Marco Ocram's user avatar
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7 votes

Converting a Euclidian proposition to a syllogism format

I think you are wasting your time on this exercise. Aristotle's logic is too weak for the task you propose. Before the invention of predicate logic, some scholars attempted to express Euclid's ...
Bumble's user avatar
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6 votes
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Is this quote from Aristotle's Poetics?

Aristotle, Poetics, 1451b : The real difference is this, that one tells what happened and the other what might happen. For this reason poetry is something more scientific and serious than history, ...
Mauro ALLEGRANZA's user avatar
6 votes
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Why is it true that anything that changes must be divisible according to Aristotle?

My expertise lies more towards the ethics side of things (especially with Aristotle), but I think Aristotle's point here generally makes sense so I will see if I can spell it out better. One ...
virmaior's user avatar
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6 votes
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I wanna start - how to be a philosopher?

I'd make two points. The first is that you can't do everything at once, so you should recognise that acquiring a competence in philosophy will be a slow process. A single text or a set of guides will ...
Geoffrey Thomas's user avatar
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6 votes

Is there any worth—other than historical—to reading Aristotle's works on logic?

Aristotle's Rhetoric was fun to read... it isn't long, and it offers a "classical" perspective on what makes a convincing (not just correct) argument. This was the work that introduced me to the ...
elliot svensson's user avatar
6 votes

How do Thomists prove that: "Everything that exists must exist by something."?

There isn't really a ubiquitous reading of the principle of sufficient reason (PSR), so I think it's worth going over some distinctions and different formulations. There are at least two major ...
Adam Sharpe's user avatar
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6 votes

The concept of eudaimonia

Eudaimonia, happiness, and well-being The standard definition of eudaimonia used to be that it denotes happiness. In recent decades a more satisfactory rendering has been found in notions such as ...
Geoffrey Thomas's user avatar
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6 votes

The problem of Motion

To enlarge upon Jo Wehler's answer, Zeno's Paradox was only a paradox for philosophers, not for Zeno's neighbors who sailed boats, walked down roads, built buildings, plowed the earth or carried rocks ...
niels nielsen's user avatar
6 votes

Why was Aristotle almost like the only Greek philosopher studied during the Middle Ages?

IMO the main reason was in the 13th century the translation into Latin - the scholary language in Western Europe - of nearly the full corpus of Aristotle’s writings. Aristotle presented a singular, ...
Jo Wehler's user avatar
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