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Kantian Subjectivism Contradiction?

To answer the question: So how would one prove that experience is indeed real without leading themselves into the trap of conceiving the thing in itself or the role and sequence? Kant’s turn in ...
Jo Wehler's user avatar
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1 vote

Is Kant's Transcendent naturalistic?

Here is what Kant had to say of the transcendental/transcendent distinction: It is not at present our business to treat of empirical illusory appearance (for example, optical illusion), which occurs ...
Kristian Berry's user avatar
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Space and time in Kant and space and time in physics

It is a common confusion that the assertion that space and time are merely ideal is the core of Kant's theory of space-time. In any case, this part of his theory is far from contradicting contemporary ...
abracadabra's user avatar
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Is Kant's talk of "homogeneity" the deeper point-of-contact between his theory of categories, and modern category theory?

I have nothing deep to say but I really like this question and I might be able to contribute a few small points. But this seems like something of a throwaway historical grounding if one considers ...
Julius Hamilton's user avatar
3 votes
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Is Kant's talk of "homogeneity" the deeper point-of-contact between his theory of categories, and modern category theory?

Daniel Sutherland (in Kant's Mathematical World) suggests, like you do ("per the Greek roots of -geneous and -morphism as "species/kind" and "form/shape," are there uses of ...
abracadabra's user avatar
1 vote

Ontic/Ontological as parallel to a posteriori/a priori?

Heidegger in his Kantbuch says that a synthetic cognition is one that is "revealed" by being itself. In turn, what is known in a priori cognitions is independent of what is experienced in ...
abracadabra's user avatar
1 vote

Why should we consider Wittgenstein a Schopenhauerian idealist?

It is a myth that Wittgenstein's acquaintance with Kant's thought is due to him reading Schopenhauer in his teenage years. In my humble opinion, Schopenhauer wasn't a very perceptive reader of Kant, ...
abracadabra's user avatar
2 votes

Thorough analysis of Kant's "conditions of possibility"

What you're referring to is probably counterfactual relations, e.g. "if X were true, then Y would be also true", which became a major topic of mainstream analytic philosophy since the ...
abracadabra's user avatar
2 votes

What amount of egoism is natural, even necessary, even moral?

I don't think you can put a quantity on it. In general, how much benevolence or courage is necessary to live a moral or happy life? The question is absurd. You can look at instances where a lack of ...
user66697's user avatar
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4 votes
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Is it a common misunderstanding to claim that Kant considered time and space to be illusion?

Kant did not claim that time and space are illusions. That would be a misunderstanding. But I do not consider this opinion a common misunderstanding. I did not hear about it before. Kant deals in his ...
Jo Wehler's user avatar
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Is it knowledge about x to know that we can't know x?

If you can’t know x, you know nothing about x. It seems to me that saying you know that you know nothing about x is just the same as saying that you know nothing about x. What are you saying that is ...
Bev hardy's user avatar
2 votes

Is it knowledge about x to know that we can't know x?

There is not a contradiction in terms in your example. A sentence like "I cannot know p, but p", although it cannot be ever asserted, can be in some cases true. This is called Moore's ...
abracadabra's user avatar
5 votes

How does Kant respond to Hume's problem of induction?

The answer above (by @PVJ), although broadly correct, is too imprecise to understand the depth of Kant's answer. It, of course, involves causality, but not in a banal manner. For Kant it doesn't ...
abracadabra's user avatar
6 votes

What did Kant mean when he said that desire is empirical and can thus furnish no basis for practical laws?

Kant has argued in his Groundwork for the Metaphysics of Morals that a practical law must be devoid of all (empirical) content and contain "only the form of a law". The whole argumentation ...
Philip Klöcking's user avatar
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1 vote

What does Kant mean by "determination"?

I will attempt to answer my own question using the help given to me by DoubleK and Conifold. Kant means the following: Practical principles, when we unpack what is contained within the concept, ...
Gerry's user avatar
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Why does Kant refer to Hume's Enquiry as "otherwise uninstructive" in the Critique of Practical Reason?

Kant is not talking about work, Arbeit, in the sense of a work of writing, but of work in the sense of labor or effort. If he were talking about the former, then we would understandably assume he ...
Gerry's user avatar
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Why is it invalid to conclude from ‘Some A is B’ and ‘One A does not differ the least bit from another’ that ‘Every A is B’?

The argument is valid if we take "does not differ in the least bit" to mean either: "is equal", i.e. all As are equal to each other. or "does not differ in a relevant way&...
NotThatGuy's user avatar
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1 vote

Why is it invalid to conclude from ‘Some A is B’ and ‘One A does not differ the least bit from another’ that ‘Every A is B’?

Why is it invalid to conclude from ‘Some A is B’ and ‘One A does not differ the least bit from another’ that ‘Every A is B’? "Some A is B" may be rendered "∃x(Ax ∧ Bx)" "One ...
ac15's user avatar
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-1 votes

Why is it invalid to conclude from ‘Some A is B’ and ‘One A does not differ the least bit from another’ that ‘Every A is B’?

I couldn't follow your narrative question, but I can certainly give an example that suits your headline question, as follows... Some electrons are in a battery on my desk, one electron does not differ ...
Marco Ocram's user avatar
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Is Hume talking about noumena in section 12 of the Enquiry?

You're misunderstanding Kant. The phenomena/noumena distinction has nothing to do with the distinction between some states which we, as humans, given our physiology, enter, when we're affected by an ...
abracadabra's user avatar
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Is noumenon euphemism for undemonstrable or pseudoscientific?

I don't understand your (apparent) hostility. Even if Kant introduced the term in order to shield claims impossible to establish by standards of methodological naturalism (however you understand it), ...
abracadabra's user avatar
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Difference between material and matter?

Kant uses the word matter in his theoretical and practical philosophy either in the sense of material (as opposed to form - the original German is either Materie or Stoff) or in the sense of what ...
abracadabra's user avatar
2 votes

Non-Kantian answers to the Kantian question of representation

This is in some contexts called the symbol-grounding problem. In a philosophical setting, we could call it the problem of objective purport or problem of intentionality. Various people after Kant have ...
abracadabra's user avatar
2 votes

What does Kant mean by object of the senses in relation to pure geometry?

Kant's theory of geometry, and mathematics generally, holds that these sciences proceed by constructing certain objects that instantiate general concepts. This construction, Kant thinks (the reasons ...
abracadabra's user avatar
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Why isn't Kant's critique of metaphysics directed to himself?

Isn't the claim that there is something beyond our possible experience a grave and quite and quite uncritical metaphysical claim? Why is this grave? And why is this uncritical. Plenty of things are ...
Mozibur Ullah's user avatar
1 vote

Why isn't Kant's critique of metaphysics directed to himself?

Wittgenstein wrote about his Tracatus: The point of the book is ethical... My work consists of two parts: the one presented here plus all that I have not written. And it is precisely this second part ...
abracadabra's user avatar
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Can there be such a thing as pure a priori thinking?

I believe this answer will depend on how broad the definition of thought is. The brain sends signals to the heart to keep it beating and lungs to enable breathing. If these qualifify as thoughts then ...
Idiosyncratic Soul's user avatar
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Can there be such a thing as pure a priori thinking?

Kant says that we cannot even think purely without being given an intuition. If we're speaking of a priori pure thought, this intuition is the pure intuition of time or space (cf. B161 for distinction ...
abracadabra's user avatar

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