New answers tagged kant
1
You're using the word 'foundationalism' quite imprecisely, which is why you see Hegel as a foundationalist. Foundationalism is an epistemological doctrine about the structure of justification. They hold that all inferences must end in some non-inferential knowledge or justified belief. Nowhere in Hegel does anything like this structure of justification occur....
4
This is a nice catch, Kant is indeed inconsistent in his use of "pure". Below I am quoting from the Guyer's 1998 translation of the Critique.
In Section I Kant first distinguishes between empirical and a priori, then among the latter, between relative and absolute, and, finally, among the absolute, between pure and impure propositions/judgments. The "pure ...
2
Inequivalent.
Kant's thing in itself refers to the "true" state of reality that is beyond the comprehension of perception due to our sensory limitation.
Freud's unconscious is a psychological reality that lies within us but we have not or have yet to grasp in our conscious thought.
They seem to be two separate concepts, in my opinion.
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The thing-in-itself was probably the logical structure of old Metaphysics. It was a nod to it. Remember, old Metaphysics was not just being as things but being as intelligibility. Purpose and so on. So there was a logic from prime mover which connected things through cause. To know the causes, not just the things. The point or purpose of being. Final ends. ...
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Kant writes in Groundwork for the Metaphysics of Morals (page 46)
If, then, there is supposed to be a supreme practical principle, and in regard to the human will a categorical imperative, then it must be such from the representation of that which, being necessarily an end for everyone because it is an end in itself, constitutes an objective principle of ...
1
In my question I wanted to explore: Suppose an almighty Creator says to themselves that they will create something which exists for its own sake, [irrespective of what the thing does or does not believe]; could such a Creator achieve this? ..The answer appears to me to be "no", because behind the words "I will create" is a desire/motive which comes before ...
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I would say they are not equivalent.
If Kant's 'thing in itself' has a psychological/intellectual counterpart it must be much deeper that Freud's subconscious.
Here is Körner summary of Kant’s view.
"In the Analytic of Concepts Kant has drawn a sharp distinction between the ‘I think which must be capable of all my presentations,’ ...
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