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I am not much of a Berkeley scholar so my answer will primarily be an attempt to explain Kant with reference to the things you state in your question. I think we need to be very careful about what exactly we mean by it is meaningless to speak of things-in-themselves that are not subject to human evaluation. This sentence can have several different ...


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On the Introduction of Noumena Kant introduces noumena in order to avoid the dialectical illusions, embodied by antinomies, in which reason would necessarily find itself when trying to cross the boundaries of experience, and into Metaphysics, trying to reach for the unconditioned. Indeed, in the Preface to the Second Edition of the Critique of Pure Reason (...


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To answer the question, we need to understand what space and time are for Kant. The SEP has an entry on that, but it goes a lot deeper than many people are probably ready for who might ask a question like yours. Simply put, Kant thinks the space and time we work with is part of the apparatus of our abilities to sense sensible things (things here just being ...


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Interpretation of Peirce's realism which grew out of combining Kantian epistemology with scholastic ontology of Duns Scotus (Peirce calls himself "a scholastic realist of a somewhat extreme stripe") is indeed difficult. What makes it even more difficult is that Peirce went through several major reworkings of his "architectonic" without ...


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For Kant, a tree falling in a forest will make a sound in so far as every necessary condition for it making a sound has been given. In the Critique of Pure Reason, he generally extends both causality and the principle of sufficient reason to all possible experience (A195/B240 [1] and A201/B246 [2])[*] such that, for any possible event, it's conditions to ...


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With regards to "space and time", there's several problematic things happening at once which make them ineligible for being "things in themselves." For Kant, what is clear is that time and space are the conditions of sensibility, i.e. they are (at a minimum) a framework our mind applies to things in order to convert them into representations. These ...


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Well, there's several things that break the analogy. First, noumenal reality is not known at all for Kant. This is because knowledge for Kant has a very different meaning that it does for Aristotle. On Aristotle's model we know things as we perceive at them and reproduce a phantasm of them in our minds from which extract the essence and have knowledge in ...


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I suggest caution in drawing out Kant's connection with the concept of the noumenon. Kant suggests that the concept of noumena can be defended on two grounds; (a) First, its logical possibility: A254-B310. "The concept of noumenon - that is, of a thing which is not to be thought as object of the senses but as a thing in itself, solely ...


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Critique of Pure Reason: Kant made a difference between 1) sensible intuition and 2) non-sensible intuition. Here intuition translates the German Anschauung. Kant always uses this term for our mode of processing our sensible input. The output of this first step is structured by space and time. Kant names the source of our sensible input thing in itself. Kant’...


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Kant gives the following explanation in Critique of Pure Reason, A249: Appearances, so far as they are thought as objects according to the unity of the categories, are called phenomena. But if I admit things which are objects merely of the understanding, and nevertheless can be given as objects to an intuition, though not to sensible intuition (given ...


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"Kant had no knowledge of contemporary science" is I think a more accurate statement than "Kant had no knowledge of modern science," because "modern" science" generally refers to science since the scientific revolution of Newton and his approximate contemporaries in other fields of empirical inquiry. Kant's project was more ...


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What I'm searching for is a word or term that describes the inability to recognize the difference between phenomenal and noumenal. Following Kant, phenomena is what we perceive, the thing as it appears. Noumena is the reason of such appearance, what we cannot perceive, the thing in itself. Then, the noumena is the thing in itself, something we cannot ...


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Inequivalent. Kant's thing in itself refers to the "true" state of reality that is beyond the comprehension of perception due to our sensory limitation. Freud's unconscious is a psychological reality that lies within us but we have not or have yet to grasp in our conscious thought. They seem to be two separate concepts, in my opinion.


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The thing-in-itself was probably the logical structure of old Metaphysics. It was a nod to it. Remember, old Metaphysics was not just being as things but being as intelligibility. Purpose and so on. So there was a logic from prime mover which connected things through cause. To know the causes, not just the things. The point or purpose of being. Final ends. ...


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Is my death a noumenon in either of Kant's senses? Kant uses the term "noumenon" in the sense of your first definition "a thing so far as it is not an object of our sensuous intuition." I doubt whether Kant discusses the term in the sense of your second definition. I doubt that Kant speculates about a kind of intution different from our human intuition. ...


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tl;dr: Kant clearly states that we cannot! Evidence in the Critique of Judgement The Critique of Judgement, as his last systematic critical book, clearly destinguishes between intuitive understanding, that will be able to conceive noumena, and understandings like ours: Kant used the intuitive understanding as a limiting concept [Grenzbegriff] to ...


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While there is some confusion at work in how the question is asked, I think there's a good question in there somewhere. I first want to suggest the following opening version of the question: What is similar in Plato and Kant's respective accounts of where the truth is found? I take on a basic level their main point of agreement is that truth is not out ...


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