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3 votes

Which author(s) first talked of Aristotle's syllogistic as a logic of terms?

I'd bring forward some considerations in the spirit of Fermi estimation. Here are the Ngram Viewer graphs for the phrases “term logic,” “logic of terms” and “terminist logic”: A quick browse for “...
Tankut Beygu's user avatar
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5 votes
Accepted

Who coined the use of the word "entailment" in the logical sense?

See G.E. Moore, "External and Internal Relations" in Proceedings of the Aristotelian Society, 1919-20. Ref, to the 1922 reprint into Philosophical Studies, page 291: We require, first of ...
Mauro ALLEGRANZA's user avatar
6 votes

Who coined the use of the word "entailment" in the logical sense?

The Barnhart Dictionary of Etymology gives the following entry: entail v. involve; require. Probably before 1400 entailen settle (a land estate) on a number of persons in succession, in Wycliffe’s ...
Tankut Beygu's user avatar
  • 2,225
-2 votes

Can the law of non-contradiction exist without the law of identity?

Can the law of noncontradiction exist without the law of identity? I am going to say no. Here is a summary of the three laws of thought, from the online Encyclopedia Britannica (formatting altered): ——...
Mark Andrews's user avatar
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2 votes

Can the law of non-contradiction exist without the law of identity?

In the way the terms LNC and identity are standardly used within logic, they are independent. Classical logic includes both, but you could have a non-classical logic that lacks either one or lacks ...
Bumble's user avatar
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4 votes

Can the law of non-contradiction exist without the law of identity?

Can the law of non-contradiction exist without the law of identity? in what follows, we'll tackle the 0th-order law of identity, the scheme 'p → p' for some binary connective for which modus ponens ...
ac15's user avatar
  • 1,422
2 votes

What does the term "mathematical logic" mean?

Mathematical Logic and Computation, Jeremy Avigad(2022): In the phrase mathematical logic, the word “mathematical” is ambiguous. It can be taken to specify the methods used, so that the phrase refers ...
Poscat's user avatar
  • 121
2 votes

What are some cases in which we can use reason but not logic?

I am curious whether there have been philosophers arguing that there are contexts in which we can use reason, but not logic. For example, some authors might say that logic cannot be used in the very ...
ac15's user avatar
  • 1,422
4 votes
Accepted

What are some cases in which we can use reason but not logic?

Reason is a broader concept that includes different forms of thinking, including thinking logically and draw conclusions based on evidence, experience, and principles. It involves the broader process ...
mkinson's user avatar
  • 505
1 vote

Does the PSR violate Occam’s razor?

The principle of sufficient reason (PSR) in a nutshell says that things happen for a reason. Occam’s razor suggests to not postulate things that bring in additional assumptions without doing any ...
Idiosyncratic Soul's user avatar
2 votes

Does the PSR violate Occam’s razor?

Occam's razor is consistent with the PSR, because in general, a world in which there are reasons for things is a simpler world. If it is necessary to describe a world containing A and B, a description ...
Ben Millwood's user avatar
2 votes

Does the PSR violate Occam’s razor?

But isn’t the postulate that things must happen for a reason an assumption itself Hume would agree, in A TREATISE OF HUMAN NATURE Though distant objects may sometimes seem productive of each other, ...
Flash_Steel's user avatar
4 votes

Does the PSR violate Occam’s razor?

You've not been paying attention to the answers to your earlier question about Occam's razor, which should have made it clear to you that an argument with fewer assumptions need not be better if the ...
Marco Ocram's user avatar
  • 21.6k
8 votes

Does the PSR violate Occam’s razor?

No. To consider them at odds would be the product of committing a category mistake. The Principle for Sufficient Reason is an observation about how causality and explanation are universally applicable ...
J D's user avatar
  • 26.6k
-1 votes

Does the PSR violate Occam’s razor?

The principle of sufficient reason and Occam's razor are two different ways of expressing the same idea, namely that since human beings are only logical, there is no compelling argument outside ...
Speakpigeon's user avatar
  • 7,696
3 votes

Does the PSR violate Occam’s razor?

OP: Contrary to the widespread intuition that by default everything has an explanation, it seems instead that one should assume there is no explanation for X since that is by default more parsimonious....
Chris Degnen's user avatar
  • 5,869
-1 votes

Does the PSR violate Occam’s razor?

Apparently to invoke the principle of sufficient reason is only useful when it is used as a heuristic: Now search for the reasons or explain why there is no reason! Otherwise the principle is ...
Jo Wehler's user avatar
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