Timeline for Is God either amoral or not omnipotent?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
4 events
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| Oct 4, 2014 at 1:59 | comment | added | yters | @Conifold - Again, I do not necessarily disagree. I am merely trying to explain where the theodicy comes from, and why the OP's question is framed incorrectly. | |
| Oct 3, 2014 at 0:57 | comment | added | Asphir Dom | Mistake of many investigators of evil to think that it is next to god (may he be its creator). It is not. It is just some thing, some period, in some place. It is same as to think that criminal sitting in local prison is spiritually close to the best men who created the world as we know it. Saying that i am not saying humans are not spiritually connected. | |
| Oct 2, 2014 at 23:37 | comment | added | Conifold | Interesting answer. Anselm treats existence as a predicate though so I agree with Kant that the ontological argument is a fallacy. And I am inclined to think that good/evil qualification doesn't apply to God (and perhaps other advanced beings), so he can have free will but what he does in itself is neither good nor evil, nor even morally neutral, just orthogonal to morality. | |
| Oct 1, 2014 at 23:03 | history | answered | yters | CC BY-SA 3.0 |