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Aug 13, 2015 at 5:49 comment added virmaior I think I partially misread your first sentence then. My hang up is with the use of "any reason." Do you mean as temporal beings we can have no capacity to engage in reason that is atemporal? (kind of a quasi-Kantian claim).
Aug 13, 2015 at 5:38 comment added Keith Nicholas but the problem is, we can't make those claims. simply saying god created the universe has no knowable meaning. Then saying there must be an impulse, that too is not knowable. Then claiming that is a temporal activity is also not knowable, then claiming its a contradiction is all based on non knowable things is not logical. If you can make claims that have some kind of knowable meaning, then sure, logic will apply.
Aug 13, 2015 at 5:06 comment added virmaior I don't think that quite follows at least on the majority views about logic. Modus ponens for instance doesn't require a temporal gap between, (1) A -> B and (2) A. It just requires the two claims. / i.e., We can distinguish logical consequence and sequence from temporal consequence and sequence. In fact, one issue with first-order logic is that it is not tensed but the world we live in seems to be tensed (future/present/past).
Aug 13, 2015 at 4:08 history answered Keith Nicholas CC BY-SA 3.0