Timeline for Does the notion of an all-powerful God conflict with the idea of free will?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
28 events
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| Jul 20, 2019 at 4:47 | comment | added | Cort Ammon | "Does the notion of an all-powerful God conflict with the idea of free will?" Only if he wants it to! | |
| Jul 19, 2019 at 13:24 | history | edited | Frank Hubeny | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jul 19, 2019 at 13:23 | answer | added | Frank Hubeny | timeline score: 0 | |
| Aug 13, 2018 at 2:45 | review | Close votes | |||
| Aug 18, 2018 at 3:05 | |||||
| Nov 9, 2015 at 14:19 | history | protected | Chris Sunami | ||
| Nov 9, 2015 at 14:18 | answer | added | Chris Sunami | timeline score: 0 | |
| Nov 9, 2015 at 5:45 | answer | added | user17782 | timeline score: -1 | |
| Oct 27, 2015 at 5:51 | comment | added | Sampark Sharma | @DBK Knowledge can not be infallible. Knowledge has no right and wrong. | |
| Apr 24, 2014 at 9:51 | answer | added | DisplayName | timeline score: 1 | |
| Apr 22, 2014 at 8:46 | answer | added | Mozibur Ullah | timeline score: 0 | |
| Mar 11, 2014 at 3:23 | answer | added | WraithKenny | timeline score: 0 | |
| Jan 23, 2013 at 20:52 | comment | added | Mozibur Ullah | Simone Weil, a philosopher and christian mystic, said that human beings were where God is not. | |
| Dec 30, 2012 at 0:40 | answer | added | I wrestled a bear once. | timeline score: 0 | |
| Dec 29, 2012 at 5:01 | answer | added | Josh Peterson | timeline score: 1 | |
| Dec 29, 2012 at 1:26 | history | edited | iphigenie |
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| Dec 28, 2012 at 8:54 | answer | added | SAHornickel | timeline score: 1 | |
| Nov 27, 2012 at 1:00 | answer | added | rraallvv | timeline score: 0 | |
| Nov 26, 2012 at 22:26 | comment | added | Robert LeChef | If I understand her correctly, I think Hilary Stump argues that God cannot know something that isn't because that's just nonsense. So God does know all there is to know which is omniscience. Perhaps the question of foreknowledge is resolved by transcending space-time. As far as omnipotence is concerned, God would not be omnipotent if he created beings with free will and then proceeded to violate his own will by determining human behavior directly. It's a broad question. Van Inwagen gives a different account. | |
| Nov 26, 2012 at 13:32 | answer | added | Annotations | timeline score: 0 | |
| Nov 25, 2012 at 5:47 | answer | added | artm | timeline score: 0 | |
| May 12, 2012 at 23:15 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackPhilosophy/status/201450626528456704 | ||
| May 8, 2012 at 15:28 | answer | added | commando | timeline score: 2 | |
| May 7, 2012 at 22:24 | comment | added | DBK | Do you see a contradiction between being in control of ones own actions and omnipotence in the sense that God could intervene and direct/control human action at any point? Instead, if your point is about God's omniscience, I would suggest that you replace "omnipotent" with "omniscient" - the point of the problem is that God supposedly has infallible foreknowledge. It get's you the same contradiction (known as paradox of free will) and avoids a discussion if omnipotence implies omniscience or not. | |
| May 7, 2012 at 19:16 | history | edited | stoicfury | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| May 7, 2012 at 18:13 | answer | added | stoicfury | timeline score: 10 | |
| May 7, 2012 at 11:49 | answer | added | Tommi | timeline score: 4 | |
| May 7, 2012 at 9:57 | answer | added | Michael Dorfman | timeline score: 5 | |
| May 7, 2012 at 9:48 | history | asked | apoorv020 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |