Hobbes argues that the human happinessgood or 'felicity' is 'continual success in obtaining those things which a man from time to time desireth, that is to say, continual prospering' ('Leviathan', ch.6). Aristotle takes a different view, identifying happinessthe human good or eudaimonia with an internal state of the individual, namely 'activity of the soul (psuche) in accordance with virtue' (Nicomachean Ethics, I.7). I do not fully understand the exact contrast between Aristotle and Hobbes despite reading the texts carefully. Can anyone explain it ?
'Human good' enables a comparison. Both can be seen to have views of the human good.
Geoffrey Thomas
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