Timeline for Have any philosophers applied the concept of "underdetermination" to non-scientific contexts?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
11 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Aug 5, 2020 at 17:55 | comment | added | Nelson Alexander | Just noting that Althusser uses "overdetermination" in Marxist theory in relation to the problem of historical determinations in Marxism. In the context of historical events and their likely causes, this might mean roughly the same thing. | |
Dec 18, 2016 at 4:01 | history | edited | Conifold |
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May 16, 2016 at 22:28 | comment | added | Alexander S King | See related: philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/31726/… | |
May 16, 2016 at 11:19 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackPhilosophy/status/732168550153097216 | ||
May 15, 2016 at 23:08 | answer | added | Conifold | timeline score: 5 | |
May 15, 2016 at 22:59 | comment | added | Matt Diamond | @mobileink and my understanding of "underdetermination" mostly comes from this: plato.stanford.edu/entries/scientific-underdetermination | |
May 15, 2016 at 22:58 | comment | added | Matt Diamond | @mobileink sorry, "this" refers to underdetermination as applied to one's knowledge of self and world | |
May 15, 2016 at 22:13 | comment | added | user20153 | also, can you be more explicit about "Is this a topic philosophers have adressed"? I don't know what "this" refers to. | |
May 15, 2016 at 21:55 | comment | added | user20153 | what exactly do you mean by "underdetermination" and cognate terms? | |
May 15, 2016 at 21:48 | answer | added | ChristopherE | timeline score: 2 | |
May 15, 2016 at 21:22 | history | asked | Matt Diamond | CC BY-SA 3.0 |