Timeline for Why are 2 Constants introduced in proving: ∃y ∀x (x = y) ∴ ∀y ∀x (x = y)?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jun 20, 2019 at 14:02 | answer | added | Graham Kemp | timeline score: 0 | |
| Jun 20, 2019 at 5:00 | answer | added | Matt Lockard | timeline score: 2 | |
| Aug 31, 2016 at 20:57 | vote | accept | CommunityBot | ||
| Aug 19, 2016 at 9:27 | comment | added | Mauro ALLEGRANZA | As per @Keelan's answer, you need some "peculiar" axiom for = to prove it, due to the fact that, in general, ∃y P(y) does not implies ∀y P(y). The "fine details" of the proof are dictated by the proof system used. | |
| Aug 18, 2016 at 8:11 | answer | added | user2953 | timeline score: 3 | |
| Aug 18, 2016 at 7:33 | history | edited | user2953 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Aug 18, 2016 at 7:02 | history | asked | user8572 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |