Timeline for Is there a logical fallacy to describe the complete dismissal of the value of scientific consensus?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Apr 13, 2017 at 12:42 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
replaced http://philosophy.stackexchange.com/ with https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/
|
|
| Dec 5, 2016 at 20:32 | comment | added | user9166 | Acting on skepticism is the argument from ignorance. | |
| Dec 5, 2016 at 17:13 | comment | added | Pirx | (Contd.) What matters is whether it is possible, in principle, to rigorously and objectively examine the argument presented. This is not the case for religious arguments, which invalidates the attempted analogy to spiritual experiences. | |
| Dec 5, 2016 at 17:09 | comment | added | Pirx | I would say that the arguments given in paragraphs 5 and 6 can be countered. Paragraph 5 contains an assertion that is arbitrary without any evidence, which can therefore be dismissed unless evidence is presented. Paragraph 6 does not present a valid argument: The fact that a person is unable to understand an argument is a statement describing the mental state and capabilities of said person, and has no bearing whatsoever on the status of the argument. | |
| Dec 5, 2016 at 16:57 | history | answered | Dave | CC BY-SA 3.0 |