Timeline for Can the issue of "something from nothing" be resolved by analogy?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| May 2, 2017 at 14:53 | answer | added | Mea quidem sententia | timeline score: 0 | |
| May 1, 2017 at 13:33 | history | edited | user2953 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Apr 27, 2017 at 20:25 | comment | added | Conifold | No issue can be resolved by analogy, because every analogy is flawed in one way or another. The analogy simply shifts the question to why something/nothing is relevantly analogous to up/down. They are semantically dependent terms, but it is conceivable that there could be nothing at all (I am not so sure about "only down"). "Why is there something rather than nothing?" was Leibniz's way of asking why not. It stems from his principle of sufficient reason:"we can find no true or existent fact, no true assertion, without there being a sufficient reason why it is thus and not otherwise". | |
| Apr 27, 2017 at 18:46 | comment | added | Philip Klöcking♦ | Because if there were only down, up would seize to exist and loose it's meaning? What should be different? Keep in mind that nothing is the true relative term here, because it can only be defined negatively by logic, but not signify anything (sic!). Therefore we need to signify confined spaces containing no-thing. Up and down both are relative to a third. | |
| Apr 27, 2017 at 17:33 | comment | added | user20153 | "something from nothing" != "something rather than nothing" | |
| Apr 27, 2017 at 17:03 | answer | added | FreeElk | timeline score: 1 | |
| Apr 27, 2017 at 7:30 | comment | added | Mauro ALLEGRANZA | It is only "playing with words" ??? | |
| Apr 27, 2017 at 7:26 | review | First posts | |||
| May 1, 2017 at 13:33 | |||||
| Apr 27, 2017 at 7:26 | history | asked | musedpony | CC BY-SA 3.0 |