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Jun 21, 2017 at 19:02 vote accept Bridgeburners
Jun 20, 2017 at 1:49 answer added Jayson Virissimo timeline score: 1
Jun 19, 2017 at 21:18 comment added user9166 No, still not. We currently have Congressmen and have had Presidents who make those arguments, pretty much as supplied. You really need a better example, where the intersection cannot be filled by citing a given example, say, Nixon. Generalizing from a few examples to 'Conservatives' is unfair, but that is not part of your argument.
Jun 19, 2017 at 20:45 comment added Bridgeburners @Coinfold I agree with you that it's not an example of the flawed argument I'm illustrating to say that conservatives are inconsistent for wanting to ban drugs and not wanting to ban guns. But it is an example of the argument if you stipulate that they appeal to the reasons illustrated in the quote for banning drugs and not banning guns. It may also be a straw man to even assume they use those arguments in the first place, but assuming you've heard some variant of those arguments from different sources it's then an example of the fallacy I'm asking about.
Jun 19, 2017 at 20:37 comment added Conifold I am not sure that your example fits the fallacy you are describing. It is known from polls that many conservatives favor both banning narcotics and not banning guns. Pollsters usually ask a number of questions, not one at a time, and correlate the data, there is no need to assume a correlation. This said, holding both views is not necessarily inconsistent, there can be reasons that justify banning one but not the other, indeed reasons that follow from conservative social philosophy (e.g. self-reliance and its impairment by drugs).
Jun 19, 2017 at 20:06 history edited Bridgeburners CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 18, 2017 at 14:49 history edited Bridgeburners CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 18, 2017 at 2:59 history asked Bridgeburners CC BY-SA 3.0