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Is Aristotle's logic sufficient to model human reasoning?

If not, why not?

Are there counter-examples, certain cases where we reason differently?

Let's assume we're talking about sound reasoning, or the reasoning of the ideal human reasoner.

EDIT: I'm asking here about our decision-making procedure, not that part of human thought that has no need of logical systems. I should have been more specific and asked whether we need more that the 'laws of thought' to perform our calculations in philosophy.

Is Aristotle's logic sufficient to model human reasoning?

If not, why not?

Are there counter-examples, certain cases where we reason differently?

Let's assume we're talking about sound reasoning, or the reasoning of the ideal human reasoner.

EDIT: I'm asking here about our decision-making procedure, not that part of human thought that has no need of logical systems. I should have been more specific and asked whether we need more than the 'laws of thought' to perform our calculations in philosophy.

EDIT 2: I'm not asking about syllogisms. I'm asking about the essential logical rules that allow us to construct syllogisms and other arguments.

Is Aristotle's logic sufficient to model human reasoning?

If not, why not?

Are there counter-examples, certain cases where we reason differently?

Let's assume we're talking about sound reasoning, or the reasoning of the ideal human reasoner.

EDIT: I'm asking here about our decision-making procedure, not that part of human thought that has no need of logical systems.

Is Aristotle's logic sufficient to model human reasoning?

If not, why not?

Are there counter-examples, certain cases where we reason differently?

Let's assume we're talking about sound reasoning, or the reasoning of the ideal human reasoner.

EDIT: I'm asking here about our decision-making procedure, not that part of human thought that has no need of logical systems. I should have been more specific and asked whether we need more that the 'laws of thought' to perform our calculations in philosophy.

Is Aristotle's logic sufficient to model human reasoning?

If not, why not?

Are there counter-examples, certain cases where we reason differently?

Let's assume we're talking about sound reasoning, or the reasoning of the ideal human reasoner.

Is Aristotle's logic sufficient to model human reasoning?

If not, why not?

Are there counter-examples, certain cases where we reason differently?

Let's assume we're talking about sound reasoning, or the reasoning of the ideal human reasoner.

EDIT: I'm asking here about our decision-making procedure, not that part of human thought that has no need of logical systems.