Timeline for Are these two propositions equivalent?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jul 7, 2020 at 16:08 | answer | added | boumeringue | timeline score: 0 | |
| Jul 5, 2020 at 0:16 | comment | added | Conifold | In classical logic, yes. ¬∃¬R(x) is obtained from∀x R(x) by applying the De Morgan's law for quantifiers, which works in both directions. | |
| Jul 4, 2020 at 21:25 | comment | added | Mark Andrews | Add a truth table to your post for each statement. Are the two tables identical? | |
| Jul 4, 2020 at 19:07 | comment | added | user46524 | i think the answer you have is fine, though you may want to be careful you don't equivocate 'reason' or indeed 'nothing' when interpreting it | |
| Jul 4, 2020 at 17:50 | answer | added | Tankut Beygu | timeline score: 2 | |
| Jul 4, 2020 at 15:05 | review | First posts | |||
| Jul 4, 2020 at 15:52 | |||||
| Jul 4, 2020 at 14:58 | history | asked | Mikustykus | CC BY-SA 4.0 |