Timeline for Can there be logic without the law of identity?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
5 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
---|---|---|---|---|---|
Jun 4, 2021 at 23:32 | comment | added | forest | This answer is incorrect. Imaginary numbers do not somehow disprove the reflexive axiom, because it does not apply to values that aren't real. | |
Jun 4, 2021 at 17:49 | comment | added | David Callanan |
You say that x = 0/0, y = 0/0 but x != y (so sometimes there isn't equality). I would go as far as saying x = 0/0 is an invalid statement altogether. x = 0/0 is not saying "x is undefined", but rather it is saying "we are failing to define x in this statement" (however an alternative statement could succeed in defining x). And thus if you interpret that statement in that way, then there is no need to define an x != y exception to this scenario. Instead, the scenario x = 0/0 does not exist. (This is just my opinion, and my point might be confusing)
|
|
Jun 2, 2021 at 22:40 | history | edited | Nullius in Verba | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
edited body
|
Jun 2, 2021 at 22:25 | review | First posts | |||
Jun 15, 2021 at 8:11 | |||||
Jun 2, 2021 at 22:18 | history | answered | Nullius in Verba | CC BY-SA 4.0 |