I have heard it argued that a god can not be all-benevolent, omniscient and omnipotent at the same time. My question is, is this a valid logical argument.
Given the premises I would argue that there are 2 possibilities.
- God's omnipotence does not include the ability to violate logic
- God's omnipotence include the ability to violate logic
If a god's omnipotence does not allow it to violate logic then it simply may not be able to be all-benevolent and all knowing at the same time as that god also prohibits evil. This is a limit of the meaning of omnipotence.
If god's omnipotence does allow it to violate logic, then a god can simply violate the argument that it can't be omnipotent, all benevolant and all knowing.
I am curious if the argument I am attempting to invalidate is actually presented in the field of philosophy as a real argument against god's existence or is simply a tool for showing the limitations of logical arguments.