Timeline for What did Leibniz mean by saying this is the 'best of all possible worlds'?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Nov 29, 2013 at 21:42 | comment | added | user3164 | @MoziburUllah I don't know. | |
| Nov 29, 2013 at 21:35 | comment | added | Mozibur Ullah | ok, I didn't realise that in this context that perfect=free of evils. Is this generally true in theology of Liebnizs time. | |
| Nov 29, 2013 at 21:33 | comment | added | Mozibur Ullah | @weissman: and nor can he overachieve by making a better world! | |
| Nov 29, 2013 at 21:30 | comment | added | Mozibur Ullah | It looks to me that Leibniz subjected the naive idea of perfection to reason, and found it wanting; compossible perfection is his replacement; or as you put it best. | |
| Nov 29, 2013 at 21:28 | comment | added | Joseph Weissman♦ | This is a fairly widely-agreed upon interpretation, see the SEP on Leibniz and the Problem of Evil: "Leibniz argues that God does not underachieve in creating this world because this world is the best of all possible worlds" | |
| Nov 29, 2013 at 21:27 | history | edited | user3164 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 155 characters in body
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| Nov 29, 2013 at 21:15 | history | answered | user3164 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |