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Dec 13, 2022 at 14:27 review Close votes
Dec 20, 2022 at 3:02
Dec 13, 2022 at 12:48 answer added AnoE timeline score: 0
Dec 13, 2022 at 8:23 comment added Nikos M. This is in fact a philosophical position related to Noneism, ie the mode of "existence" of non-existent things.
Dec 13, 2022 at 7:49 answer added Rob timeline score: 0
Dec 13, 2022 at 6:52 history edited Mauro ALLEGRANZA
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Dec 13, 2022 at 5:40 answer added g s timeline score: 1
Dec 13, 2022 at 4:59 comment added kuro See philosophy.stackexchange.com/a/95130/63724 for a discussion very adjacent/related to your question.
Dec 13, 2022 at 4:13 history became hot network question
Dec 13, 2022 at 3:16 answer added Nelson Alexander timeline score: 3
Dec 12, 2022 at 20:20 comment added user63756 ps if i sound like a nihilist philosophy.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/5398/…
Dec 12, 2022 at 20:13 answer added Professor Sushing timeline score: 2
Dec 12, 2022 at 20:10 comment added user63756 you're like Dostoevsky without the celibacy :D more seriously: why does it matter, and what, if anything, can you infer about anything from this supposed fact about nothingness
Dec 12, 2022 at 20:02 comment added user63756 maybe this is the unforeseen impetus to nihilism, i do not know
Dec 12, 2022 at 19:52 comment added user63756 why not? that doesn't mean they are absent in the same way.
S Dec 12, 2022 at 19:17 review First questions
Dec 12, 2022 at 20:51
S Dec 12, 2022 at 19:17 history asked I divi CC BY-SA 4.0