This question means that there is no happiness and it is a variable of suffering And the change of suffering represents happiness
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Epicurean philosophy certainly held this view, that ataraxia was from the cessation of suffering (and that pleasure often produced more suffering in the long run). Other philosophers disagree of course.– HokonCommented Nov 15 at 17:03
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1No, if it was the dead would be very happy.– ConifoldCommented Nov 15 at 18:43
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2 Answers
Immediate counterexample: clinical depression often manifests as flattened affect, not feeling much of anything.
Everyone who has been happy at least once in their life knows that happiness is much more than absence of suffering.
Hence the OP's question is better to be answered from experience than from philosophical reasoning.
