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Syed
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If laws merely describe things in the world, then it seems that there is no reason for a particular object to behave according to a particular law the next moment.

If laws govern/order/command reality in some way or if there is something inherent to an object (lets call it a “power”) that governs how the object behaves according to a law, we now have an explanation for why an object continues to move or behave according to a certain pattern.

Does this mean that if laws or these lawlike causal powers are actually doing things or causing things rather than being merely descriptive, there is an explanatory advantage to the former?

EDIT: It seems that most people are misunderstanding what I mean here by laws of nature, even though the philosophical literature makes it clear as to what they mean. I am not referring to our human attempts to understanding these laws, but whatever the fundamental laws of nature actually are, irrespective of our knowledge. Some philosophers think that these fundamental laws, whether we know them or not, govern the universe. Others think that even if we could fully describe all the laws in the universe, they don’t actually govern anything. The question is if the former idea has greater explanatory power than the latter.

If laws merely describe things in the world, then it seems that there is no reason for a particular object to behave according to a particular law the next moment.

If laws govern/order/command reality in some way or if there is something inherent to an object (lets call it a “power”) that governs how the object behaves according to a law, we now have an explanation for why an object continues to move or behave according to a certain pattern.

Does this mean that if laws or these lawlike causal powers are actually doing things or causing things rather than being merely descriptive, there is an explanatory advantage to the former?

If laws merely describe things in the world, then it seems that there is no reason for a particular object to behave according to a particular law the next moment.

If laws govern/order/command reality in some way or if there is something inherent to an object (lets call it a “power”) that governs how the object behaves according to a law, we now have an explanation for why an object continues to move or behave according to a certain pattern.

Does this mean that if laws or these lawlike causal powers are actually doing things or causing things rather than being merely descriptive, there is an explanatory advantage to the former?

EDIT: It seems that most people are misunderstanding what I mean here by laws of nature, even though the philosophical literature makes it clear as to what they mean. I am not referring to our human attempts to understanding these laws, but whatever the fundamental laws of nature actually are, irrespective of our knowledge. Some philosophers think that these fundamental laws, whether we know them or not, govern the universe. Others think that even if we could fully describe all the laws in the universe, they don’t actually govern anything. The question is if the former idea has greater explanatory power than the latter.

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Is there greater explanatory power in laws being prescriptivegoverning things rather than being descriptive?

There seems to be a popular viewpoint on this site that the laws of nature are descriptive and nothing else.

If laws merely describe things in the world, then it seems that there is no reason for a particular object to behave according to a particular law the next moment.

If laws are prescriptivegovern/order/command reality in some way or if there is something inherent to an object (lets call it a “power”) that governs how the object behaves according to a law, we now have an explanation for why an object continues to move or behave according to a certain pattern.

Does this mean that if laws or these lawlike causal powers are prescriptiveactually doing things or causing things rather than being merely descriptive, there is an explanatory advantage to the former?

Is there greater explanatory power in laws being prescriptive rather than descriptive?

There seems to be a popular viewpoint on this site that the laws of nature are descriptive and nothing else.

If laws merely describe things in the world, then it seems that there is no reason for a particular object to behave according to a particular law the next moment.

If laws are prescriptive or if there is something inherent to an object (lets call it a “power”) that governs how the object behaves according to a law, we now have an explanation for why an object continues to move or behave according to a certain pattern.

Does this mean that if laws are prescriptive rather than descriptive, there is an explanatory advantage to the former?

Is there greater explanatory power in laws governing things rather than being descriptive?

If laws merely describe things in the world, then it seems that there is no reason for a particular object to behave according to a particular law the next moment.

If laws govern/order/command reality in some way or if there is something inherent to an object (lets call it a “power”) that governs how the object behaves according to a law, we now have an explanation for why an object continues to move or behave according to a certain pattern.

Does this mean that if laws or these lawlike causal powers are actually doing things or causing things rather than being merely descriptive, there is an explanatory advantage to the former?

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Syed
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There seems to be a popular viewpoint on this site (but not the most popular viewpoint among philosophers) that the laws of nature are descriptive and nothing else. Note that in the survey linked, “Humean” refers to laws of nature being mere descriptions.

If laws merely describe things in the world, then it seems that there is no reason for a particular object to behave according to a particular law the next moment.

If laws are prescriptive or if there is something inherent to an object (lets call it a “power”) that governs how the object behaves according to a law, we now have an explanation for whywhy an object continues to move or behave according to a certain pattern.

Does this mean that if laws are prescriptive rather than descriptive, there is an explanatory advantage to the former?

There seems to be a popular viewpoint on this site (but not the most popular viewpoint among philosophers) that the laws of nature are descriptive and nothing else. Note that in the survey linked, “Humean” refers to laws of nature being mere descriptions.

If laws merely describe things in the world, then it seems that there is no reason for a particular object to behave according to a particular law the next moment.

If laws are prescriptive or if there is something inherent to an object (lets call it a “power”) that governs how the object behaves according to a law, we now have an explanation for why an object continues to move or behave according to a certain pattern.

Does this mean that if laws are prescriptive rather than descriptive, there is an explanatory advantage to the former?

There seems to be a popular viewpoint on this site that the laws of nature are descriptive and nothing else.

If laws merely describe things in the world, then it seems that there is no reason for a particular object to behave according to a particular law the next moment.

If laws are prescriptive or if there is something inherent to an object (lets call it a “power”) that governs how the object behaves according to a law, we now have an explanation for why an object continues to move or behave according to a certain pattern.

Does this mean that if laws are prescriptive rather than descriptive, there is an explanatory advantage to the former?

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