First a link to his derivation: http://www.jfsowa.com/logic/tarski.htm
Its a famous essay so you really should read all of it but at the moment its enough if you read section 7 where Tarski derives a contradiction.
Alfred Tarski says in there that we can empirically establish the fact that
1) "The sentence printed in this paper on p. 347, l. 31, is not true." is identical with the sentence printed in this paper on p. 347, l. 31.
And that claim is Tarski's error because by Leibniz law we get
2) "The sentence printed in this paper on p. 347, l. 31, is not true." IS TRUE IFF The sentence printed in this paper on p. 347, l. 31, IS TRUE.
Now we use Aristotle's Rule to simplify line 2 to get
3) The sentence printed in this paper on p. 347, l. 31, is not true. IFF The sentence printed in this paper on p. 347, l. 31, IS TRUE.
This is a contradiction so we have a final truth on the matter!
4) IT IS NOT TRUE THAT "The sentence printed in this paper on p. 347, l. 31, is not true." is identical with the sentence printed in this paper on p. 347, l. 31.
Tarski claims a logically false sentence to be empirically true.
That makes his proof not valid. (QED)
PS: I decided to edit out everything else but Tarskis mistake :)