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There are already similar questions about math, numbers, and time:

Surprisingly, there doesn't seem to be a similar question about logic, despite its profound connection to mathematics (can math exist without logic?), physics (can we practice physics without logic?), or science in general (can the scientific method work without logic?). One could even argue that logic is foundational to philosophy itself, which is arguably the mother of all other disciplines. Logic seems to function universally, making it appear fundamental to the workings of the universe.

But was logic something inherent in reality that we discovered, or is logic purely an abstract construct of the human mind, with no objective existence in reality? That is to say, if all minds capable of logical thought were to vanish, would reality still operate in accordance with logical principles?

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    Everything expressed through language is an abstract representation of what it attempts to describe. And what it attempts to describe is the interpreted sense data. Logic is such a way to abstractly represent accumulated sense data. We have to identify a pattern, and attribute logic after the fact. Check out Gödels Incompleteness Theorems for the limits of math and logic.
    – Sammich
    Commented Sep 25 at 6:00
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    Those who answer "discovered" are termed logical realists by analogy to mathematical realists (like platonists), see recent Survey of logical realism by Tahko. Sher and Maddy are prominent contemporary defenders:"(1) logic is true of the world because of its underlying structural features, and (2) human beings believe logical truths because their most primitive cognitive mechanisms allow them to detect and represent the aforementioned features of the world." (Maddy).
    – Conifold
    Commented Sep 25 at 6:30
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    @MauroALLEGRANZA You may want to share your thoughts on Conifold's comment above.
    – user80226
    Commented Sep 25 at 6:32
  • 2
    See: Jean-Yves Béziau, What is a logic? Towards axiomatic emptiness (2010): "What is logic? is a difficult question. In this paper we will tackle the issue through a simpler question What is a logic?. We will explain why we can consider that a logic is a structure without axioms similarly to the case of universal algebra and giving a example of a simple logic obeying none of the standard axioms that however can reasonably be considered as a logic." (logical pluralism). 1/2 Commented Sep 25 at 6:50
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    For a more traditional approach, see S.C. Kleene, Mathematical Logic (1967), page 3: "Mathematical logic is logic treated by mathematical methods. Logic has the important function of saying what follows from what." Commented Sep 25 at 6:56

4 Answers 4

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Logic pre-exists humans, so it is discovered

Causation is a logic relation, and is an essential feature of our universe.

Relationships are logic relations, and are intrinsic features of our universe.

Sequential logic (the essence of time) is an essential feature of our universe.

Information is a logic subset, and is a calculable and intrinsic feature of physics.

Our realization of these facts, were discoveries.

Evolution provided us a logical sense

We intrinsically think in a form of logic, that was evolutionarily developed. This has led early thinkers to believe that our evolved logic was itself essential to the universe.

This is not a valid inference. Evolution develops shorthand approximations to deal with our universe. Our intuitive logic is mostly useful, but leads us astray in many cases. This was detailed in Thinking Fast and Slow, where System 1 makes multiple logic errors.

Evolution "discovered" our intrinsic logic.

"Classic" logic is basically the application of our intrinsic logic to error correct itself, to arrive at the simplest mostly coherent logic system. This too was a "discovery", that a better logic can supplant our flawed intrinsic logic.

Further exploration of the field of logic revealed it is infinite

Mathematicians discovered that math is infinite. The key hint was when our "intuitive" Euclidean geometry was not the only kind of geometry possible. The same process of exploring alternatives revealed that logic is also infinite: https://www.cambridge.org/core/journals/think/article/guide-to-logical-pluralism-for-nonlogicians/EDFDFA1C9EB65DB71848DABD6B12D877

These were discoveries.

Further evaluating aspects of our world, different logics apply to different aspects of it. While classical logic is generally the most applicable, multiple other logics have proven useful. What parts of our world follow what logic, is yet another discovery.

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  • Why is it you don't hold that causation is a metaphysical relation?
    – J D
    Commented Oct 1 at 19:22
  • @JD Hmm. I thought it was obviously a logical coupling between events. The logic coupling is what makes something a "cause" rather than a "correlation". Metaphysics, meanwhile, I consider to be epistemology plus ontology.
    – Dcleve
    Commented Oct 1 at 20:07
  • In normal speech, logical consequence and cause and effect are used interchangeably, but it might be blurring the distinction between logical consequence and causation. The former is expression of reason and logic, and the latter contains putative assertions about reality. It's in this broader sense that metaphysics is normally interrelated to ontology and epistemology but broadened to include the "the basic structure of reality"
    – J D
    Commented Oct 1 at 20:15
  • I didn't downvote, but I think the modern presumption is that causality is essentially a special case of correlation. Pearl has the definitive work on formal methods to determine causality (AFAIK): Causality, 2nd Ed.. Thus, it's seen at least partially as a construct of the mind.
    – J D
    Commented Oct 1 at 20:16
  • @JD Read the paragraph on page xv of your reference, starting with "Ten years ago...." Pearl is describing causation as a logic, and "the fundamental building blocks of both physical reality and our human understanding of that reality". And rejects his prior "abbreviating intricate patterns of probabilistic relationships" correlation views. Also even his prior "correlation" views held that the probabilistic relationships were in the world, not in our minds. I think you are misreading Pearl.
    – Dcleve
    Commented Oct 1 at 21:10
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Logical relationships just are, and thus were discovered.

Formal logic as a system was invented.

It is hard/impossible to describe the former without using the language of the latter. But for example, even if no cognition existed in the universe — it would be true that: if all X are Y; and A is an X; then A is Y.

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    I'm upvoting on the basis of the first two assertions which are historical facts, but "if no cognition existed in the universe — it would be true that: if all X are Y; and A is an X; then A is Y" seems to be a philosophically controversial claim that logical relationships are not only a priori but thought-independent. Did you have either an argument or a source to substantiate that claim, out of curiosity, or is that just your personal belief? It seems you presume conceivability is all that is necessary to adjudge something as existent which at least runs afoul of empiricism.
    – J D
    Commented Sep 25 at 20:42
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Was logic invented or discovered?

As often, the same word may mean different things, so the answer depends on what we mean by the word "logic". Yet, we can look at what people do to decide.

First, what (most) academics do. The job of academics is, literally, to pursue academic disciplines (not to say their academic career). What academics choose to call "logic" is, as a consequence, either a formal discipline, better called not "logic" but "formal logic", or formal systems developed in the context of formal logic. Such systems are, therefore, literally, theoretic construct of formal logic. Not all theoretic constructs mean something which exists, and I believe that, in these instances, none of them do.

However, what is interesting in what academics do in relation to logic is that they all protest vehemently that they reason logically. Thus, we can at least say that either these people are totally deluded or they have to have, at the very least, a logical capacity. But if they have a logical capacity, this is presumably not because they are all either particularly gifted in reasoning logically (whatever they themselves believe), or trained so as to have an otherwise totally unnatural ability to reason logically. Presumably, academics believe that they have a capacity to reason logically because they have a capacity to reason logically. This is not even controversial, and not even particular to academics. We all have a capacity to reason logically. Since most people are not taught to reason logically, we probably have to conclude that it is a natural capacity.

Just to realise that we can reason logically requires a logical capacity.

If we accept that (nearly) all humans have a natural capacity to reason logically, it must be because logic is, at the very least, itself a natural (cognitive) capacity. Maybe it is something more, but it has to be at least a natural capacity.

How come we have it? The most plausible answer is natural selection. Logic must have appeared as a selective advantage, possibly over hundreds of millions of years of evolution. Neurons have appeared broadly 525 million years ago, and they seem a good candidate as the physical substrate to our logical capacity. So we just inherit our own logical capacity through our DNA, just as Homo Sapiens inherited its logical capacity through the DNA it "received" from its ancestor species.

Thus, logic is essentially a innate cognitive capacity (very nearly) all humans have in common. It would also be very implausible that among all animals with a brain, only humans had this logical capacity. Only humans possess the sort of articulated language that they have. Pigs and cows clearly cannot articulate any reasoning, but since they don't do silly things, certainly not most of the time, they too have to be logical, and so they too have to have a logical capacity.

Thus, logic was discovered.

And then, formal logic was invented, almost in the same breath. It is sometimes said that Aristotle did it, but more reasonably it was the work of a number of philosophers in Ancient Greece, most prominently among them, Aristotle.

can math exist without logic?

Certainly not. Mathematics could not exist without language either, but language itself could not exist without logic. Language involves so-called linguistic rules, and nobody could apply rules sensibly if they didn't have a logical capacity. So, just to be able to speak and understand what other people say, we need to have a logical capacity. Mathematics itself requires the applications of implicit and explicit rules, and so requires a logical capacity. This is why logic could not possibly be a branch of mathematics.

One could even argue that logic is foundational to philosophy itself

Obviously, yes, but this is nothing specific to philosophy. Logic is necessary to every meaningful thought that we have, for the ascription of a meaning to a thought requires a logical capacity.

How could philosophy, or any form of rigorous inquiry, exist without logic?

No, but this is more general than that. No sensible conversation in natural language could take place if those taking part didn't have a logical capacity. Language involves rules, and applying rules requires logic.

Logic seems to function universally, making it appear fundamental to the workings of the universe.

This is putting the cart in front of the horse. Logic is fundamental to every meaningful thought that we have, so we cannot think of anything outside the logical framework imposed by our own nature. Thus, logic appears universal to us, but not because it is, only because by nature we cannot think illogically, or outside the logical box, as it were.

Obviously, because logic is just a consequence of natural selection, it is also the consequence of the laws of nature. As such, it is a part of nature. However, I don't think that a mere chunk of brute matter has a logical capacity in the sense that we do. Logic requires something like perception, re-presentation of perception and computation on re-presentation. If we happen to believe that Kurt and Bertrand like cabbage, we will also inevitably believe that Kurt like cabbage. Our brain has to work like this if we are to survive in our environment. People whose brain doesn't work like this I don't think live very long.

Or is logic purely an abstract construct of the human mind, with no objective existence in reality?

Our idea of logic is an abstraction, but we do have very real logical intuitions, such as for example that Aristotle's syllogisms are logically valid. We can test this on ourselves, by simple introspection.

Formal logic is definitely a theoretic construct. As practiced by academics at the moment, it doesn't correspond to anything real, but this could probably be improved.

And if all minds capable of logical thought were to vanish, would reality still operate in accordance with logical principles?

Again, it all depends on what we use the word "principle" to mean. If we mean "formal principle", then of course reality doesn't need any formal principle to do what it does. If instead we mean by "principle" something fundamental to reality, then reality seems to always work according to fundamental principles, although it is very possible that we be mistaken in the belief that it does.

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  • You don’t believe in digital circuits? There are real-world applications for many mainstream logics, not just Classical Logic. I think you believe that most academics wholeheartedly believe Classical Logic, as opposed to using it for the tool that it is. If I got through to you before, I implore you to keep an open mind and see just how real formal logics are.
    – PW_246
    Commented Sep 25 at 15:50
  • Re your point about the origin of logic, do you have similar views about color or sound? Do you think color didn’t exist until seeing beings existed that could perceive it? Or does it just apply to logic?
    – PW_246
    Commented Sep 25 at 15:52
  • @PW_246 "see just how real formal logics are" They are theories, so of course they're real, just has Trump's gobbledygook is. False assertions are just as real as true ones. Newton's theory of Universal Gravitation is real. False but real. Oh, and it has valuable applications. We can send probes to Uranus and Neptune only using Newton's false theory, even though the route relies on fiendishly complicated sling effects. Perhaps you can realise that we use false implications as if they were true? And get the correct result. Lucky us, isn't it? So, what's your point again? Commented Sep 26 at 15:57
  • @PW_246 "color or sound?" I would have thought that by now educated people all understood that colours and sounds only exist as thoughts (impressions). It does mostly no harm to go along with the fable that some things in the world outside our mind are red or blue, but Kant already explained why not. Commented Sep 26 at 16:03
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    No, anti-realism about color is not the standard philosophical position. Red requires but is not sufficed by conscious perception. There are real things that in fact are red, and they would still be red in that sense without conscious observers. Redness isn’t just the perception or the wavelength, but rather how those things are related. Red is a relation, more than it is a mental effect or a wavelength of light.
    – PW_246
    Commented Sep 26 at 23:22
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I think the really hard part of the question is the relationship between mind and matter, something I haven’t yet devoted thinking to. It appears the relationship between world-creating-mind and mind-creating-world is complex and bidirectional. I think it would be fruitful to try to propose a model for that.

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