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Our logic is usually called "closed", i.e. if there's some formula/propostion F then its negation ~F is also a formula/proposition.

Could there be also a non-closed logic, i.e. a logic where F is a formula/proposition, but ~F is not?

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  • Point (3) seems unrelated to points (1) and (2). Commented Feb 8, 2021 at 12:25
  • @Pippen Here is an example for you. In category theory they have morphisms (maps) and the operation of composition on them. But one can only compose morphisms when the source (domain) of one matches the target (codomain) of the other. Otherwise, the composition is not well-formed (undefined). If composition can be only partially defined, why not negation? One can declare that ~ can be applied to wffs of one sort, and produce another wff, but not to wffs of other sorts. For example, one can declare that wffs with ∃ in the prefix are not negatable, as in existential SOL.
    – Conifold
    Commented Feb 9, 2021 at 13:17
  • Negating a logical proposition ipso facto makes a logical proposition, at least in the logic of human deductive reasoning, even though it is itself not closed in this sense. Commented Feb 10, 2021 at 11:39
  • Would you consider seven-valued logic to be closed by your definition? (Please read look at all the values carefully before answering.) Commented Feb 10, 2021 at 14:09
  • These are two different meanings of "closed". The first is purely syntactic and basically needed to define a formal language. The second meaning of "closed" is more subtle (and powerful) in that now you're allowed to rewrite the formulas in whatever way you want (using the theory generated by the axioms) and as long as you can find some form that is in the language fragment then it's said closed (in this 2nd sense). Commented Feb 26, 2021 at 13:27

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I'll address points (1) and (2); point (3) seems unrelated (and frankly, too vague to admit an answer in my opinion).

Re: (2), there is unfortunately no standard definition of "logic" (or "logical system," or "formal system," or etc.). There are various different definitions employed in different contexts. One of the standard ones - the notion of a regular logic (see e.g. the end of Ebbinghaus-Flum-Thomas) - does indeed require closure under negation, and so existential second-order logic (for example) is not a regular logic. But there are many other definitions floating around, including vastly more general ones.

Your argument in (1) that all logics have to be closed under negation seems to rest on the assumption that a logic should consist of all meaningful expressions in some context. Since every meaningful statement's negation is also meaningful (I think this is indisputable), this would indeed imply negation-closure. However, this sort of "expressive maximality" is not generally assumed. For example, we tend (to put it mildly) to consider first-order logic a logic, but it is clearly not maximally expressive since e.g. there is no first-order sentence corresponding to finiteness.

Basically, when we talk about existential second-order logic as a logic, there is no tacit assumption that negations of existential second-order sentences need not be meaningful; rather, we're merely choosing to focus on a particular set of meaningful expressions, for whatever reason - either intrinsic interest or application in some way. It may help to observe that interesting properties of logics (broadly construed) need not be "negation-symmetric." For example:

  • Every satisfiable existential second-order sentence has a countable model, but there are satisfiable universal second-order sentences without countable models.

  • Every finitely-satisfiable set of existential second-order sentences is satisfiable, but there are finitely-satisfiable sets of universal second-order sentences which are not satisfiable.

So existential second-order logic has the downward Lowenheim-Skolem and compactness properties, while universal second-order logic doesn't. Together with its game-theoretic analysis, this points to existential second-order logic as being "meaningfully tamer" than its dual.


Incidentally, while I've absolutely taken a mathematical stance above, this isn't something which should be thought of as purely mathematical. For example, the standard adage "it's impossible to prove a negative" (ignoring its serious flaws) points to a fundamental difference in nature of meaningfulness between "purely existential" and "purely universal" claims. One can argue - at least in certain contexts - that some claims are "confidently affirmable but not confidently deniable." I would argue that what makes a logic "natural" is that we have some unifying idea of how its sentences are granted meaning, and while meaningfulness is preserved by negation the type of meaningfulness need not be.

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  • What I meant was this: For any (formal or informal) system S who uses the symbol "~" as an operator on some expression of S it must hold that if p is an expression of S then also ~p is such. That's what I mean with closed negation, it's basically a syntactical theorem. Do you agree that any logic whatsoever needs this theorem? What is does philosophically: it prevents you from being able to refer to anything outside of what S allows (that is if we interpret "~" as what we call a negation).
    – Pippen
    Commented Feb 8, 2021 at 14:21
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    @Pippen "Do you agree that any logic whatsoever needs this theorem?" No, since we haven't picked a definition of "logic." As my answer says, there are various definitions floating around, and some do require closure under negation while others don't. Some sets of sentences are closed with respect to negation, others aren't; which ones qualify as "systems" or "logics" will depend on the definition of "system" or "logic" being used. Commented Feb 8, 2021 at 14:23
  • Meanwhile, re: "What is does philosophically: it prevents you from being able to refer to anything outside of what S allows (that is if we interpret "~" as what we call a negation)": that seems like a total non-sequitur to me. I don't understand how $S$ being closed under negation has to do with referring to things "outside" $S$. Commented Feb 8, 2021 at 14:25
  • So you think there is a system possible where we define "~" as an operator to a legal expression of the system and then when we have such a legal expression p then ~p would not necessarily be also a legal expression in this system? That's what I fail to grasp because for me that's obviously impossible due to the syntactical rules.
    – Pippen
    Commented Feb 8, 2021 at 14:32
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    @Pippen Yes, exactly. In existential second-order logic, negation is only a partial syntactic operation. Commented Feb 8, 2021 at 14:50

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