Some previous questions here (e.g., How is existence in presentism reconciled with relativity of simultaneity?) asked about apparent conflicts between presentism and special relativity. I have a more general question about the first, which suggests that this conflict is just an instance of a more general problem.
Presentists say, e.g., OPE" "only temporally present things exist." But I've never quite understood what the presentists think that OPE means, or what they want me to believe, in practice, by asserting OPE. I thought this when I first read a defense of their theory 30 years ago, before I began my PhD in philosophy (specializing in ethics rather than metaphysics, to be sure), and nothing I've read or heard since has shed any significant light on it.
The most sense I can make of it is that they think that OPE makes (what to some of us are surprising) assertions about which objects the well-defined word "exists" correctly refers to...whereas in fact they are surreptitiously re-defining "exists" to refer only to things which are present (and then redefining "present" so that this has nothing to do with physicists' understanding of time, to boot). Well, I guess you can do that if you want to, and then the rest of us (especially those who take physical science seriously) have to translate between their speech and ours. But it's confusing and unproductive, especially if the presentists think they are making more substantive claims when they're not. It's like asking "how many legs does a dog have, if you call a tail a leg?" Well, four, because calling a tail a leg doesn't make it one. I can of course talk your way and say "five," but I don't see the point of doing so, especially if you insist that you aren't redefining "leg" but defending a surprising thesis about what tails are or could be, and you expect me to agree with you about it.
One can defend presentism via the "intuition" that what exists, is just what exists now. But then you have paradoxes about how past things can cause present things, which they evidently do, without existing. If you can only defend presentism by abandoning all our intuitions about causation, don't pretend to me that you are defending common-sense intuitions as such--you are instead picking and choosing them arbitrarily. Our intuitions may of course be somewhat confused here; that's why they should generally give way to more precise scientific analyses of reality instead of the other way around. So if causation is real, then there are problems with presentism even under Newtonian conceptions; special relativity just exacerbates these. Ultimately you can go solipsistic and say that only the here-and-now exists, but again if you think this is a substantive claim when you're only (unreasonably) narrowing your conception of "exists," then we'll need a different word to refer to all the stuff (things, entities, moments) around (and before and after) the here-and-now, to serve the same role as the word that the rest of us previously called existents. Indeed, this seems implied by the usual definitions of presentism, as when OPE distinguishes present moments (events, entities, etc.) from, well, presumably non-present ones. Well, ok, then when I want to talk about the latter, give me a more general word than "exists" to do so with, and I'll carry on as before. Now, I'm fine with using more precise notation/terminology if this proves to be necessary, when we discover that the world is more complex than our previous speech/intuitions took it to be. And by no means do I rule out some possible value to presentist talk in this regard; maybe we should distinguish more sharply between present and non-present entities (other than, well, in the way I just did). But my objection is that it hasn't been presented this way, but rather as a substantive thesis about reality, so it is no wonder they haven't so much as presented arguments in favor of a merely pragmatic terminological change, let alone compelling ones.
One professor suggested, in response to my question about what OPE meant in practice, that presentism would forbid quantification over non-present times. But this exemplifies the same problem. Consider NEW: "There was at least one year in the 19th century when no European power was at war." I don't know if NEW is true or not, but it is surely quite meaningful and either true or false (or, if there are ambiguous cases, they may involve having to clarify what we mean by "European power" or "war"--but surely there is little doubt about what we mean by "year in the 19th century"). Now if the presentists don't want us to assert quantified sentences like NEW, they had damned well better give us ways of translating NEW into their preferred terminology. I don't know what that would look like...but I suspect it would just be a more complex, roundabout way of expressing the same proposition I take NEW to express.
So that's my thesis; my question is simply, is this wrong, or it is a plausible reading of the claims and debates over presentism, shedding some light over the issue? Discuss.