As Kant has a theory of consciousness, can it be used to explain Paranoia? Or at least explicate it a little?
Foucault talks about Schizophrenia as an eternal deferrment of signification.
In Kant, some part of signification lies outside of the Kantian Intellect, and outside of the Freudian Unconscious; it is its substrate (or sensible manifold) where space & time are conceived and imposed on the noumenal world - being the conditions for experience. A similar narrative is told for causality.
Can we say, in dream states, space, time and causality become disordered; that part of the sensible manifold becomes inoperable, or operates inexactly; in Paranoia, the mind remains conscious whilst this happens, so space enlargens or shrinks, time can curl around or repeat, and causality links together notions that are either incommensurable or lie far apart; so we get notions of synchronicity - things being linked together that in the conventional world are not.