It has been a long time since I've read the Critique of Pure Reason. My question is, how is the mind able to perform the transcendental deduction, according to Kant.
What I'm getting at is... the way I understand Kant, the only tools the mind has are the forms of sensibility (FS) and the categories of understanding(CU). Are we using FS and CU themselves to derive FS and CU? Wouldn't there be some kind of paradox involved here?
Or is there some other power of mind that is used to derive FS and CU. Did/would Kant say we are using "reason" (independent of understanding) to perform the transcendental deduction?