All Questions
Tagged with terminology aristotle
14 questions
0
votes
0
answers
71
views
Can you explain the problem with Aristotle's doctrine of terms presented in this excerpt?
I'm really confused about the second paragraph. This is form Kenny's "A New History of Philosophy".
"One of the dysfunctional features of the doctrine of terms is that it fosters ...
4
votes
2
answers
696
views
What is the the difference between common sense and phronesis?
For refference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Common_sense
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phronesis
For me this started with Giambattista Vico who pretty much had the same idea of "common sense" ...
1
vote
1
answer
60
views
What does "it" refer to in this short Aristotle passage?
In this sentence: "In short, virtue is concerned with pleasures and pains; the actions that are its sources also increase it or, if they are done differently, ruin it" (Nicomachean Ethics ii3 1105a15)
...
1
vote
1
answer
768
views
How did Aristotle arrive at the definition of substance/ousia?
In Aristotle's terminology, ousia, or substance, is that which is the subject of predication, but never itself predicated of anything. This is a highly technical definition; I don't expect it reflects ...
1
vote
1
answer
1k
views
Why is ousia translated as substance? Should it be?
From Aristotle's Metaphysics, translation Reeve 2016, Z1:
What is being?---is just the question, What is substance?
This statement is a lot more obvious in Greek:
Ousia is a noun formed from ...
3
votes
1
answer
152
views
Term for cohesion/unity (in art)
I am trying to remember a term I once heard/read in a document -- I believe -- related to poetry and music. If not mistaken, the term was introduced by Aristotle/Plato, and it defines that: a piece of ...
8
votes
3
answers
5k
views
In Aristotle, What does it mean for something to be predicated?
I am studying Aristotle's views on substance, and in the narratives of his work, the term 'predicated' is used with great frequency, though not at all defined. In Googling the meaning of 'predicated', ...
0
votes
1
answer
125
views
Did Aristotle really apply the term 'accent'?
Source: p 114, With Good Reason, An Introduction to Informal Fallacies (6 ed, 2000) by York U. Prof. S. Morris Engel
Unintended meanings can arise not only from faulty sentence,
structure, as in ...
2
votes
1
answer
443
views
Why did Aristotle choose the terms 'Major Term' and 'Minor Term'?
I have not (yet) studied Ancient Greek. This comment introduced me to the pertinence of Aristotle's Prior Analytics, but the translation and commentary below do not answer question entitled above.
...
1
vote
1
answer
268
views
Why did Aristotle describe as Extremes: the Major Term and Minor Term?
I have not (yet) studied Ancient Greek. This comment introduced me to the pertinence of Aristotle's Prior Analytics, but a translation below does not resolve my question entitled above.
Source: ...
3
votes
2
answers
388
views
Does entelechy have a contrary?
As I understand it, entelechy is a term that is associated with Aristotle who used it in the sense of the actualisation or complete realisation of an entity's potential.
As far as we know, was ...
2
votes
2
answers
165
views
Is Aristotle referring to both Posterior Analytics and Prior Analytics when referring to simply "Analytics"?
In Book I, Part 2 of Aristotle's Rhetoric, Aristotle writes:
With regard to the persuasion achieved by proof or apparent proof:
just as in dialectic there is induction on the one hand and ...
5
votes
2
answers
642
views
Is contemporary advertising a form of Rhetoric?
The definition that Aristotle gives of Rhetoric makes me think that it could also include contemporary advertising.
The definition of Rhetoric is the following:
Rhetoric may be defined as the ...
4
votes
2
answers
1k
views
Categorical propositions and individuals in Aristotelian term logic
If I understand the Stanford Encyclopedia article on the subject, there are two types of terms used in syllogistic propositions, the universal and the individual, and only universal terms can serve as ...