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Is this statement about causality a fair representation of Hume's view?

▻ THE BACKGROUND PICTURE Hume is an empiricist - let's state the obvious. This means in his case that the basis of all knowledge is perception - not just visual perception but sense-based experience. …
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1 vote
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Does explanation matter in philosophy?

ROLE OF EXPLANATION IN PHILOSOPHY : THE PLACE OF MODELS In everyday life, including moral situations, we need to be able to influence or control others' actions. We may do this by persuasion, pleadin …
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2 votes

If I use an object to produce an effect, am I the direct or the indirect cause of the effect?

I can't see that the hammer is the cause of anything here. This is not merely because it is an inert object; an inert object can be part of a causal chain of objects and events. Rather, it is not here …
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1 vote

Can the immediate effect of a cause be considered a part of the cause? If not, why?

No event has a necessary effect : after any event, X, the universe might vanish into nothingness, and so X would have no effect. In other words, no event, Y, is 'doomed' to follow another, X, as its e …
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1 vote

Hume's epistemology : impressions, causality, and judgment?

This extract from Treatise, I.iii.9, is not Hume's most lucid passage but let's get the whole of it in view before trying to work out what he intended to convey: TEXT It is evident, that whateve …
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1 vote

Does the principle of sufficient reason imply mechanistic determinism?

Let's start with a reference, then think things through indepenently: Leibniz presents the Principle of Sufficient Reason as holding universally within the created world. He gives us various …
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5 votes

Spinoza and causality

Freedom for Spinoza is not exemption from causality. We are free when we understand - have 'adequate ideas' about - the causes of our actions. …
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1 vote

Is it possible to have truth if objective randomness exists?

If everything were objectively random then everything would denotable in a language, L1; but the meta-language L2 statement about all denotations in L1, 'Everything is objectively random', would true. …
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1 vote

I can't see how free will exists in a universe that's only causal or random, can I be convin...

It depends on how far randomness goes. You could still make choices/ decisions and form intentions in a world in which everything else but yourself were random but any free will you had would be nugat …
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3 votes

Can causally unconnected things become causally connected?

Jaegwon Kim, 'Noncausal Connections', Noûs, Vol. 8, No. 1, Symposia Papers to be Read at the Meeting of the Western Division of the American Philosophical Association in St. Louis, Missouri, April 27- …
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3 votes
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Aristotle's middle point between teleological eliminativists and teleological intentionalists

Aristotle's ideas about final causation apply to all organisms. The basic notions are those of a nature (phusis) and a potential for change (dunamis). For instance, an acorn has a nature (phusis), …
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7 votes
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If we imagine a world that functions without causality, how absurd could it be?

If the world were without causality then it need not change in any way. It might fortuitously behave exactly as it does now. This is certainly a logical possibility. … If the world were without causality but none the less followed probabilistic laws - exhibited probabilistic regularities - then we could easily get by counting on such regularities if their probabilities …
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1 vote

Does a material cause either depend on its effect or appear to be somehow self-sufficient?

Confused and welcome to PSE. Aristotelian aitiai and Hindu causes It is traditional to refer to Aristotle's 'four causes' but 'cause' isn't the best translation of Aristotle's term, aition, except …
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